[IMAGE: https://steemitimages.com/DQmccsaQYHKZxpPjNgwCbg89po31xoCzCah6xUAkcPU74UU/wrong%20proof%20-%20Copy.jpg]
Hello Steemians! I had a classmate in my high school who tried to convince me and proof that 1 is equal to 2, i.e. 1=2. The fallacious proof goes thus:

[IMAGE: https://steemitimages.com/DQmPdafYRSxLkXHs8dXV6YZcztuP3KD5nqTxrQhWMfPMoxx/1.JPG]

By factorizing the left hand side and using sum of difference square for left hand side, we have:

[IMAGE: https://steemitimages.com/DQmTc4UcZ5HgCm56McoZyMXk96mFooQZ4hFzLB1GWTFB7z5/2.JPG]

Dividing both side by (x-x), gives:

[IMAGE: https://steemitimages.com/DQmX96eJcw2wXNccAFPMELQV1Xtv8jYYkp1TQumfgGtiyWJ/3.JPG]

Dividing both side by x, to get:

[IMAGE: https://steemitimages.com/DQmYADJUEn9fzPuQodm18uRsiqaa5H63iijotFs6DYxJmH7/4.JPG]

What is wrong with this proof? Can we call this a false proof or class fallacy?

Is this really a proof? As for me, I dont know. What about you?

Please drop your comment below.